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by zfell
2315 days ago
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Could there be a much simpler explanation? The most recent study the article sites (Morgan et. al, 2018) states that out of 468k people in the population "1870 children developed schizophrenia (0.4%) while 9120 developed a psychotic illness (1.9%). None of the 66 children with cortical blindness developed schizophrenia or psychotic illness." If we don't assume there is a relationship between schizophrenia and cortical blindness, it's not surprising that none of the 66 people who had cortical blindness developed schizophrenia. Simple binomial approximation will yield a 77% (0.996^66) probability. Am I missing something? Also I find the difference in prevalence rates of schizophrenia of 0.4% in the Morgan et al. paper vs 0.72% in McGrath et al. 2008 odd. Morgan et al. 2018: https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/abs/pii/S09209...! |
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It explains the difference in prevalence rates: "While median lifetime morbid risk for schizophrenia is estimated to be 0.72% (Saha et al., 2005), many of our young cohort had still not passed through the window for schizophrenia onset."
However, their claim for a relationship is indeed very weak: "In our data, this dropped to 0.2% for congenital or early peripheral blindness and was zero for congenital or early cortical blindness [0 cases out of 66]. Our data further suggest that the protection offered by cortical blindness may extend to a broader range of psychotic disorders and that risk of psychosis may effectively be reduced to zero."
It's ironic that they start the discussion stating "The results from this whole-population cohort, although possibly underpowered, lend confidence to findings from smaller case studies". Yes, it is underpowered, and I'm surprised it was published.