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by Sniffnoy
2420 days ago
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Other commenters have already pointed out some of the ways you're confused about categories, but let me explicitly answer your question of, why doesn't the functor include the mapping on the objects and not just on the morphisms? The answer is it does. In this context, the types are the objects. So if F is your functor, then F itself -- which does not have a type, but has kind * -> * -- is the mapping on the objects. |
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I think I get it. Thanks.