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by gentaro
2444 days ago
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>> The idea is that by picking a random real number C, there is a chance it will fall between A and B over time, no matter how the other person picks their numbers A and B. But for any two finite numbers, A and B, the chance that C will fall between them if selected from an infinite range is 1/infinity (or 0). |
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I think you're assuming we pick C uniformly at random from an infinite range, but this is not possible. In general, the claim is not true: consider picking C from a sample of a standard normal, if A = -B = 2 then with >95% C will lie between A and B.