[greenbay20]

>> But for any two finite numbers, A and B, the chance that C will fall between them if selected from an infinite range is 1/infinity (or 0).

I think you're assuming we pick C uniformly at random from an infinite range, but this is not possible. In general, the claim is not true: consider picking C from a sample of a standard normal, if A = -B = 2 then with >95% C will lie between A and B.