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by edmundsauto
2481 days ago
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Do you consider a probability distribution function as objectively true? If it's not obviously true beforehand, I'm not sure if it's only clear in hindsight, which has all kinds of psychological issues in interpretation. IOW, is there any practical difference between "there is no objectively correct price" and "we'll never know what it is"? The price at any given time reflects the current consensus of the objective price, distorted through the current average psychological lens of the market? If something is unknowable before it occurs, we will never know what the objectively true measure is until it's occurred. At which point it changes, since the market is dynamic. How could we ever know which point is the correct price? |
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In theory, we can take a now worthless stock and look back in time to determine the actual present value at a given point in the past.
In theory, we can imagine an outside observer running an arbitrarily large copies of our universe from a given point in time to determine the probability curve at said point in time (under whatever model of randomness you want to use). More plausibly, we can take a set of predicted probability curves and look back to see how accurate they were (did events predicted with uncorralated 50% probability happen half the time?).
Economics is hard, because it is very difficult to determine these facts, even in retrospect, but they still exist.