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by man-and-laptop
2781 days ago
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Replace the role of Turing Machines with Type 2 Turing Machines. Then it is possible. And it's got absolutely nothing to do with computable functions. [edit] The downvoters can't argue with facts. I am not deleting this comment. |
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The standard definition of computable is on a turing machine, not a type 2 turing machine. Of course we can define an alternate model where more things are computable. Edit: And the standard definition of computable is relevant because it happens to be the exact set of functions we can compute on real computers.
While Weihrauch [0] does introduce a different definition of the word computable, that would in a randomized setting allow for sampling from the interval [0, 1] (and not just for rationals as I understand it either). Any algorithm on his "oracle turing machines" will still have to take an infinite amount of time, even to return the rationals. He just allows that in his definition of computable.
[0] https://core.ac.uk/download/pdf/82440448.pdf