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by gpm
2781 days ago
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Computers are not type 2 turing machines, nor are any other physically existing thing that we know of. They aren't really turing machines either because they have a finite tape, but since we are only interested in running the turing machine for a finite amount of time and thus accessing a finite amount of tape that distinction is unimportant. The standard definition of computable is on a turing machine, not a type 2 turing machine. Of course we can define an alternate model where more things are computable. Edit: And the standard definition of computable is relevant because it happens to be the exact set of functions we can compute on real computers. While Weihrauch [0] does introduce a different definition of the word computable, that would in a randomized setting allow for sampling from the interval [0, 1] (and not just for rationals as I understand it either). Any algorithm on his "oracle turing machines" will still have to take an infinite amount of time, even to return the rationals. He just allows that in his definition of computable. [0] https://core.ac.uk/download/pdf/82440448.pdf |
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Also, by the way, the distinction between "complete" and "potential" infinity is useful here. The Type 2 Turing Machines features only a "potential" infinity, the same type that's common throughout Theoretical Computer Science. A real number is a only a "potential" infinity -- a process of sorts. You seem to be demanding that a real number be represented as a "complete" infinity, but this isn't needed for anything in physics or engineering or anything else. The demand you're making, which would imply that an infinite amount of time is needed, is unreasonable.
And by the way, the downvoter is somebody who can't argue with facts.