I pointed it out because the post doesn't make it clear what the sentence means. "The median" is undefined, and to get the implied meaning, there's only one reference: the group of people including the OP. Obviously, it doesn't make sense in this context, but it's never clarified.
Actually, your post also doesn't specify that: median of what group?
> Chances to be better off than the median are exactly 50%.
No, if a sample size of monthly salaries is:
$1k, $3k, $4k, $10k, $12k
The median is $4k. Achieving better than that may indeed be a slim chance if it represents a level up in seniority. Your background and skills matter.
Also, in this sample size, only 40% are above median. If you measure everyone salary to the dollar, it will approach 50% but never get there. In fact above median will always be < 50% by definition.
Which is what most national income distributions look like. With the vast majority making below or well below the median income. Hence the fuss about the 1% controlling so much wealth.
> With the vast majority making below or well below the median income.
In any case, it's mathematically definitionally impossible for the vast majority of any population to be making less than the median of that population. (It is possible with respect to the average, of course.)
(Even in the above (degenerate) case, there is no member of the series with less than the median value of $1K.)
OP would have significant disadvantages that would make them likely to be below the median.