|
|
|
|
|
by moosinho
2900 days ago
|
|
Can someone tell me if I understand this correctly. So Bell famously proved that it is not the case that the correlation we see between 2 entangled particles A and B is because of some common cause C. Therefore we concluded that it must be that A => B or B => A and we called it a spooky action at a distance. But aren't we forgetting that there's a one more way to get a correlation between A and B without resorting to spooky action at a distance - conditioning on a common effect, aka collider:
http://www.the100.ci/2017/03/14/that-one-weird-third-variabl... Has anyone proven that this is not the case? |
|