|
|
|
|
|
by lovich
2940 days ago
|
|
I am struggling to understand your train of thought. I claimed that there is redistributing wealth from society to business owners via welfare for low paid employees. In my understanding of the world the wages that are necessary to sustain the work force are $X and employers are paying $X -$Y. That $Y is the amount covered by welfare and what I am considering to be the wealth redistribution from society to the business owners. That seems consistent with the idea that if the $Y subsidy is removed, then employers would be forced to raise wages or lose their workforce. For example: if I have a nice car that my parents cover the lease and they stop covering the lease,I will either have to increase the amount of money I spend on the lease or lose the car. Just because I can respond to the change doesnt mean wealth wasn't being redistributed from my parents to me Edit: it also appears that we are triggering hn's anti flame war measures as I have to wait some time to reply to you now. This has been a unheated discussion to me, but there will be delays in any responses now |
|
Now you're saying that if welfare is removed employers would be forced to raise wages or go out of business. If that's true, then yes, welfare is subsidizing shareholders. Given that belief, do you support removing welfare programs so that we (society) can stop subsidizing shareholders?