That's not the discussion here. GP claimed that the law varied state by state. I'm asking to be shown such a law which gives police increased latitude to use force.
That's entirely the discussion here. If, when judged, cops are judged with one standard, and everyone else by another, then yes, they are given increased latitude to use force.
Well yeah, obviously. But that doesn't per se vary by state, it varies by jurisdiction / judge / jury, etc.
My point is simply that there are no state-by-state standards for this, which was GP's claim. States don't allow anybody, peace offer or not, to use any amount of force beyond what is required to effect an arrest.