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by s73v3r_ 2952 days ago
That's entirely the discussion here. If, when judged, cops are judged with one standard, and everyone else by another, then yes, they are given increased latitude to use force.
1 comments

Well yeah, obviously. But that doesn't per se vary by state, it varies by jurisdiction / judge / jury, etc.

My point is simply that there are no state-by-state standards for this, which was GP's claim. States don't allow anybody, peace offer or not, to use any amount of force beyond what is required to effect an arrest.