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by Zarath
2964 days ago
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One thing I've never understood is how computers using one ISP connect with computers using another ISP. Is there some sort of law that requires that one ISP's cable must be able to interact with another ISP's cable? What incentive does someone, like say Comcast, have in allowing their users to interact with people using a smaller ISP like yours? |
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Comcast mostly provides service to end-users. Comcast connects with larger backbone providers, like Level 3, NTT, Sprint and Cogent. Those providers sell access to other residential ISPs like Necto, but also to businesses, like website hosting companies, cloud providers, etc. Comcast might directly connect to some bigger businesses like Google, CDNs, etc, for performance and cost-saving reasons.
The large ("Tier 1") providers all peer with each other, and you can pay one of those ISPs to be able to reach the customers of all the others (this is called "Transit"). So Comcast might connect to Level 3, and buy transit from them. My ISP might connect to NTT, and buy transit from them.
When my computer sends a packet, it goes to my ISP. They consult their routing table, and decide it's reachable over NTT. NTT gets the packet, routes it through their network to a peering point with Level 3, who will then route that packet to Comcast, and finally to the end user.
Then some other random home ISP which pays for connectivity with NTT is reachable from my comcast connection. The business relationship is not between Comcast and my ISP, but it's between Comcast and L3, L3 and NTT, and NTT and my ISP.
Thus Comcast would have to go out of their way to block connectivity. Comcast wants to reach everyone on Level 3's network, because that's where the websites users want to connect to are.
This is largely simplified. There's a lot of billing, politics, and technology issues involved here, and I'm not sure I understand them all.