You can do non-targetted ads without explicit consent as far as I understand. You only need it for the extra personal information use. Sure it's a bit worse for the publishers. (But I'm happy with that)
Where would "non-targeted" ads even come from? How can you use an ad network or even run a standard ad server in a way that doesn't share at least the reader's IP Address?
Mom and pop publishers who don't have the resources or ability to staff their own ad sales team are going to be in trouble. The big players who can work around this obstacle are going to be fine. I'm not happy about this.
No, I'm pretty sure that is incorrect. The EU believes that an IP itself is personally identifiable and it must be secured and processed like any PII [1]. I think you could make a case that the IP being sent to an ad network is an "acceptable" business practice for which you don't need consent, but IANAL.
Mom and pop publishers who don't have the resources or ability to staff their own ad sales team are going to be in trouble. The big players who can work around this obstacle are going to be fine. I'm not happy about this.