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by whatshisface
3028 days ago
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The "multiverse" would be one big wavefunction (quite physical), and each "universe" would be a partition of the wavefunction in phase space. In this sense "multiverse" and "universe" would just be names for different parts of the wavefunction, like "The Rocky Mountains," and "Kona," would be names for features on a topo map. |
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If you are going to tell me that it is according to the eigenvalues of the observable operator it's not that different from saying that there is a collapse on one of the eigenvalues of the measurement.
And the question remains for your "isolated particles in a box doing multiverse". How is the partition of the wavefunction done if there is no preferred basis?
Edit: Maybe in your interpretation the only "physical" thing is the universe described by its wave function and those infinite multiverses are just mathematical "projections" of that wavefunction. But then how can a mathematical operation without any physical substrate explain anything about the physical world?