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by kgwgk
3028 days ago
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Which basis is used to partition the wavefunction? If you are going to tell me that it is according to the eigenvalues of the observable operator it's not that different from saying that there is a collapse on one of the eigenvalues of the measurement. And the question remains for your "isolated particles in a box doing multiverse". How is the partition of the wavefunction done if there is no preferred basis? Edit: Maybe in your interpretation the only "physical" thing is the universe described by its wave function and those infinite multiverses are just mathematical "projections" of that wavefunction. But then how can a mathematical operation without any physical substrate explain anything about the physical world? |
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In Multiverse, the projection-onto-eigenbases statistical rule (which guides the partition of the wavefunction into conceptual universes), is seen as being like thermodynamics: statistical, and motivated to compress vast microscopic information into variables that are nice for humans. Someone who thought MV was the right idea would say that projections were a way to calculate the fraction of universes in which something was true, and thereby your probability of ending up in one where it was. In that view, it's emergent, instead of fundamental - like temperature. This reduces the number of fundamental ideas necessary by allowing projection to emerge instead of being asserted.