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by Latty
3196 days ago
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My claim is not that attacks don't happen, my claim is that your original statement ("There is a correlation between the % of Muslim population and # of acid attacks") is unsupported. You are creating a strawman of my argument to fight. I never claimed anything else, and your rant is totally off-point. You are the one making the claim, you are the one who can't back it up. You then proceed to say we are talking about London - your statement was not bounded to London - if your correlation only holds in London, why is that? That implies that there is another factor influencing things, and only further undermines your link. Again, you then go on to continue to rant about positive claims - the statement I am arguing was not "acid attacks have happened", it was the one given above, which is not proven by a single positive example. You are not presenting evidence to back up the statement you made. And then you go into further rants about reporting - which is all totally irrelevant. You can't make broad claims about groups of people based on any reporting like that. It is clear the data can be misleading because of why and how those stories are chosen. Again, you keep falling back to "you can't say this didn't happen" - no one was claiming that! I said I never saw it happen in locations I lived to show the pointlessness of your anecdotal evidence - there is selection bias at play, and it's too small a sample. I'm not claiming they never happened, just that your argument does not prove the point you made. Just because it happened, and was reported on, does not prove a causal link or even a correlation. Let me make this clear: You made a claim ("There is a correlation between the % of Muslim population and # of acid attacks") with no evidence. If you want to say something like that, you need proof. That is what I have been saying - very clearly - all along. |
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My claim was that muslim communities do in fact commit violent attacks against people they perceive as being somehow violating islam/sharia (or merely perceived as vulnerable or undesirable for that matter). I then illustrated with examples that, firstly these attacks do happen, and secondly, that the government statistics on that are "routinely misreported" (quote from the linked article).
And once again you make the argument from ignorance logical fallacy. Just because such a correlation cannot be proven DOES NOT prove the opposite. It does not provide any reassurance that your thesis is true. And if you look at it on a somewhat larger scale you will see how your claim is really the unlikely side of the argument.
It is an absolute known fact that muslim communities, by and large, attack their own members if they are perceived to act against sharia. Read Human Rights Watch. Over 20% of the total human population lives in nation where such attacks are in the laws.
Given that over 90% of muslims worldwide do these attacks, directly or through state actions (passively if you will), why would any sane person even accept your claim that such a thing is not done in immigrant communities as a default claim that requires no evidence ? Talk about far fetched.
Do you see the problem here ?