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by candiodari
3196 days ago
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I think you'll find, if you check, that that % claim was made by "mcrocop", not by me. It is not what I'm arguing. My claim was that muslim communities do in fact commit violent attacks against people they perceive as being somehow violating islam/sharia (or merely perceived as vulnerable or undesirable for that matter). I then illustrated with examples that, firstly these attacks do happen, and secondly, that the government statistics on that are "routinely misreported" (quote from the linked article). And once again you make the argument from ignorance logical fallacy. Just because such a correlation cannot be proven DOES NOT prove the opposite. It does not provide any reassurance that your thesis is true. And if you look at it on a somewhat larger scale you will see how your claim is really the unlikely side of the argument. It is an absolute known fact that muslim communities, by and large, attack their own members if they are perceived to act against sharia. Read Human Rights Watch. Over 20% of the total human population lives in nation where such attacks are in the laws. Given that over 90% of muslims worldwide do these attacks, directly or through state actions (passively if you will), why would any sane person even accept your claim that such a thing is not done in immigrant communities as a default claim that requires no evidence ? Talk about far fetched. Do you see the problem here ? |
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Again, I am not arguing the opposite is proven! You are literally putting words in my mouth.
You are arguing a totally separate point, and just decided to reply to me, for some reason. Please actually read the posts you are replying to and stay on-topic. Your off-topic rants are useless, and you have wasted a lot of my time trying to work out what the hell you are going on about.