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by RiderOfGiraffes
5830 days ago
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Let's toss two coins until at least one shows a head. By your reasoning the odds of them both being heads is 1/2. It's not. Try it. Suppose I roll two dice until at least one of them shows a 6. What's the odds of both being 6's? I've said nothing about the red die versus the blue die, but the underlying truth requires that the situations are kept separate. It's only - as far as we know - in quantum mechanics where you deliberately lose the distinction. I've done these as real world experiments as I explore them with kids, and I have a lot of direct experience. If you disagree then I'd be delighted to gamble with you. |
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You haven't read the article then ... the problem as stated in the article is that you know one coin is going to be a head, so what's the probability of the other one also being a head?
Of course ... the events aren't connected ... the second coin toss doesn't depend in any way on the first coin.
That's why I think there's something wrong about the article ... saying that the probability is 33% fails both intuition and elementary probabilistic.