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by quirkafleeg
3336 days ago
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> How about returning the islands they stole, instead? Obvious troll is obvious but for the sake of facts: a) The Islands were uninhabited when the British settled there. b) Argentina didn't even exist as an independent country when the British claimed the Falklands. > It's not like they're anywhere close to London, are they? It's not like Argentina is anywhere close to Madrid, but there seems to be a lot of people of Spanish descent living there. |
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- Spain named several governors for those islands from 1774 to 1810. Sovereignity was clearly stated by Spain over those islands.
- During that time, those islands depended of Buenos Aires government.
- If Spain owned Argentina plus the Malvinas, then once Argentina got its independence from Spain, the Malvinas were included as part of that independence.
- 1820, frigate La HeroĆna sailed to Malvinas to take possesion of it
- 1825, Great Britain admitted Argentina's independence from Spain, but didn't claim the islands.
- 1828, Buenos Aires government granted Port Soledad to Luis Vernet, for building up a colony. For this purpose, he shipped 100 inhabitants to the islands.
- 1829, Vernet was named as governor of the islands
- 1833, Great Britain took the Malvinas, and expelled the inhabitants from the islands.
Not to mention other facts like geology, and that the UN approved the new map for Argentina, which expands the continental shelf all around the islands.[1][2]
So, care to tell me how can Argentina OWN all the argentinean sea shelf AROUND the islands, BUT the islands?
[1] http://www.staff.city.ac.uk/p.willetts/SAC/OP/OP14UPDT.HTM
[2] http://www.staff.city.ac.uk/p.willetts/SAC/IMAGES/ARG-CNSH.J...