| Ok, for the sake of facts, and I'm not quoting Wikipedia. - Spain named several governors for those islands from 1774 to 1810. Sovereignity was clearly stated by Spain over those islands. - During that time, those islands depended of Buenos Aires government. - If Spain owned Argentina plus the Malvinas, then once Argentina got its independence from Spain, the Malvinas were included as part of that independence. - 1820, frigate La HeroĆna sailed to Malvinas to take possesion of it - 1825, Great Britain admitted Argentina's independence from Spain, but didn't claim the islands. - 1828, Buenos Aires government granted Port Soledad to Luis Vernet, for building up a colony. For this purpose, he shipped 100 inhabitants to the islands. - 1829, Vernet was named as governor of the islands - 1833, Great Britain took the Malvinas, and expelled the inhabitants from the islands. Not to mention other facts like geology, and that the UN approved the new map for Argentina, which expands the continental shelf all around the islands.[1][2] So, care to tell me how can Argentina OWN all the argentinean sea shelf AROUND the islands, BUT the islands? [1] http://www.staff.city.ac.uk/p.willetts/SAC/OP/OP14UPDT.HTM [2] http://www.staff.city.ac.uk/p.willetts/SAC/IMAGES/ARG-CNSH.J... |
They claimed the Falkland Islands before Argentina even existed as an independent country, as I said in my post. They didn't have to make a new claim every time they recognized a new country.