I didn't say that it does. But it seems to be an important addition to the claim that "Pakistan has a system of laws that is based on the British system". Hudood Ordinances are certainly not based on the British system. And they're a big part of the problem being discussed here.
I didn't get an answer to my question in another thread; perhaps you could help with that? It is as follows:
Did Pakistan have its blasphemy law in its current state since founding, or was it significantly broadened under Zia-ul-Haq?
I'm genuinely curious about this, because if it's a later addition, then wouldn't several decades of Pakistan's existence without laws as stringent as they are today indicate that the society can actually handle this being dialed down quite a bit just fine?