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by int_19h
3342 days ago
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I didn't get an answer to my question in another thread; perhaps you could help with that? It is as follows: Did Pakistan have its blasphemy law in its current state since founding, or was it significantly broadened under Zia-ul-Haq? I'm genuinely curious about this, because if it's a later addition, then wouldn't several decades of Pakistan's existence without laws as stringent as they are today indicate that the society can actually handle this being dialed down quite a bit just fine? |
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The hardliners' response to your last argument gets tied up in something like "the British took us away from true Sharia" or something along those lines. On talk shows you hear "This is a law from Quran and Sunnah, not a man-made law"