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by Almaviva 3352 days ago
"So it’s 99.5% that it occurred due to warming over the industrial era"

There are at least a couple of statistical fallacies in this conclusion. And there isn't a lack of agreement about that.

One problem with p-value tests is precisely that people misunderstand what the p-value means, which is where basic education comes in. It could save people from believing a lot of things they shouldn't. (Like many health and fitness crazes over the last generation, for instance) Or at the very least, we could train science journalists.

1 comments

Do you agree to the statement "so it's 99.5% that we correctly reject the hypothesis it occurred without warming over the industrial era"?
I think you're mainly correct. The main issue is that there's an implied "given that the model from http://www.nature.com/ngeo/journal/v10/n2/full/ngeo2863.html is 'perfect' (at least for this case)". Since it seems unlikely that the model is perfect, the numbers they give are almost certainly inflated.
Nope. I'm totally wrong.