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by ralfd
3365 days ago
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This B2/B2 elimination also immediately jumped out to me as being wrong. But a Youtube comment wrote:
> "But the thing is, I ran a few tests through a big randomized sample set, and... he's right. It's super weir … the second boy-girl problem had ~51.9% change of containing a girl. Keep in mind this was about 100 million randomized samples too." I can't wrap my head around it. |
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Here's another way to think about it. It's twice as likely to have one girl and one boy (either BG or GB) compared to having 2 boys. Thus, the version of the paradox where you're given that the parent has a boy results in a 2/3 chance of the other child being a girl.
However, the more unlikely it is that any given boy satisfies the condition (in this case the condition would be being born on a Tuesday), the more likely the BB case becomes compared to BG or GB.
More concretely, if only 1/n of the boys satisfies some condition, you would be left with only 1/n of BG or GB, while you would be left with 2/n - 1/(n^2) of BB. In this case, let the population be all parents with at least one boy (this consists 1/3 of BB, 1/3 of BG, and 1/3 of GB). Letting n = 7, (BG union GB) represents (1/7)(2/3)=2/21 of the population, while BB represents (2/7 - 1/49)(1/3) = 13/147 of the population.
Now, (2/21)/(2/21+13/147) = 14/27, our desired result.
I hope that's a more intuitive way of thinking about it. The important part is realizing the differences between knowing that the parent has a boy vs knowing that the parent has a boy born on Tuesday.