[Qwertious]

No, saying "X is illegal/legal therefore it is immoral/moral" is a logical fallacy. As the above user said: In some places, slavery in some places is legal, and by your logic it is therefore moral; however, we all agree that slavery is immoral (apart from the places it's legal, that is), QED your logic is flawed. Argumentum ad Absurdum.

What the above user is saying, is: Suppose congress passed a law saying "X is illegal". Does that mean that X is immoral? The answer is clearly no, because congress passes all sorts of idiotic/insane laws.

[bweitzman]

I never said "X is illegal/legal therefore it is immoral/moral", and I don't agree with that sentiment.

consider:

x ∈ X x ∈ I X ⊆ L Y ⊆ L therefore ∀ y ∈ Y, y ∈ I or even just ∃ y ∈ Y, y ∈ I

that doesn't make any sense.

That's basically what Lawtonfogle was saying, where X is some other country's laws, Y is our country's laws, L is the set of all laws, and I is the set of immoral laws. The fact that slavery is legal somewhere else only proves that's it's possible for a bad law to exist. Doesn't mean that we have bad laws in our own countries (which of course we do, however)