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by bweitzman
3900 days ago
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I never said "X is illegal/legal therefore it is immoral/moral", and I don't agree with that sentiment. consider: x ∈ X
x ∈ I
X ⊆ L
Y ⊆ L
therefore ∀ y ∈ Y, y ∈ I
or even just ∃ y ∈ Y, y ∈ I that doesn't make any sense. That's basically what Lawtonfogle was saying, where X is some other country's laws, Y is our country's laws, L is the set of all laws, and I is the set of immoral laws. The fact that slavery is legal somewhere else only proves that's it's possible for a bad law to exist. Doesn't mean that we have bad laws in our own countries (which of course we do, however) |
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