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by hnpc123 3927 days ago
I looked through the transcript of that talk and could not find a reference to that statistic.

I was prompted to actually look into this claim because the incidence of white-on-black murder is extremely low and I imagine the incidence of white-on-black murder where the victim is a woman is even lower. I would be surprised if there were even 5 such cases in the past 50 years in Alabama.

Do you have any sources? Or can you post the relevant snippet from that talk?

1 comments

Black on white murder is also extremely low.

~84% of white victims are murdered by whites and ~90% of black victims are murdered by blacks.[1]

Crime is primarily a function of opportunity. When opportunity is taken into account, the main reason for the discrepancy is blacks are simply more likely to come into contact with whites day to day than the reverse.

So while I can't confirm the above statistic for you I can refute the assumption that there is a significant discrepancy between white-on-black crime vs. black-on-white crime.

1. http://www.politifact.com/florida/article/2015/may/21/update...

If blacks are more likely to come into contact with whites than the reverse then it would follow that blacks are more likely to be killed by whites than whites are by blacks.
Yes it does, but that skew is very small. Only a few percentage points...as cited above.

It would be a mischaracterization to imply one is extremely low, while the other is much higher. They are both, comparably, very low.

For exactly the reason you stated the rate of black-on-white murder is much higher than the reverse.
I do not think most would consider 5 or 6% is "much higher" or that if 90% is "extremely low" that 84% is not also "extremely low".

Particularly when you take variance and margin of error into account.

With such a tight range, I would wager one could only definitely claim they were probably approximately within a percent or two at best.

I don't know if percentages are the right metric to use here. You can certainly make up a scenario which is completely absurd, but still has your percentages. Assume 100,000,000 green people, and 100 blue people on a distant planet. Nine blue criminals kill 9 blue people. One green person kills one blue person. So that's 90% blue-on-blue murder, and an 10% of the blue population are murderers, and there is a 10% murder rate among the blue population. Now lets say there were there were 9 green people murdered by 9 green people, and one 1 green person murdered by 1 blue person. Again 90% green-on-green murder, and a 0.00000001% murder rate.
> Crime is primarily a function of opportunity. When opportunity is taken into account, the main reason for the discrepancy is blacks are simply more likely to come into contact with whites day to day than the reverse.

Crime is primarily a function of opportunity in environments prone to crime. In environments not prone to crime it is primarily a function of motivated offenders, and most opportunities are not taken advantage of.