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by hnpc123 3927 days ago
If blacks are more likely to come into contact with whites than the reverse then it would follow that blacks are more likely to be killed by whites than whites are by blacks.
1 comments

Yes it does, but that skew is very small. Only a few percentage points...as cited above.

It would be a mischaracterization to imply one is extremely low, while the other is much higher. They are both, comparably, very low.

For exactly the reason you stated the rate of black-on-white murder is much higher than the reverse.
I do not think most would consider 5 or 6% is "much higher" or that if 90% is "extremely low" that 84% is not also "extremely low".

Particularly when you take variance and margin of error into account.

With such a tight range, I would wager one could only definitely claim they were probably approximately within a percent or two at best.

I don't know if percentages are the right metric to use here. You can certainly make up a scenario which is completely absurd, but still has your percentages. Assume 100,000,000 green people, and 100 blue people on a distant planet. Nine blue criminals kill 9 blue people. One green person kills one blue person. So that's 90% blue-on-blue murder, and an 10% of the blue population are murderers, and there is a 10% murder rate among the blue population. Now lets say there were there were 9 green people murdered by 9 green people, and one 1 green person murdered by 1 blue person. Again 90% green-on-green murder, and a 0.00000001% murder rate.