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by mykhal 3993 days ago
Nice, but I bet nobody is currently able to write there a proof for

  $\Re(s) = \frac{1}{2}$ for all s where $\zeta(s) = 0$ and $0 < \Re(s) < 1$
.. I mean, where zeta is the Riemann's one :)
1 comments

don't be sad. how can one appreciate your comment, if he can't even recognize the meaning of the formulae at the hackchat homepage?