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by pluma
4005 days ago
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Strawman. There's nothing about marriage that necessitates restricting it to members of opposite sexes. It is however a contract, which requires restricting it to persons that are capable of consent. Exclusion conflicts the basic premise of equal rights so the exclusion has to have valid reasons other than "because that's how we defined it". A more interesting question would be why it's restricted to natural persons and why it is restricted to two persons. |
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There's nothing about contracts that necessitate restricting them to persons capable of consent, if you decide to define contracts not to require consent anymore.
If you feel free to redefine the nature of marriage, surely you can also feel free to redefine the nature of contracts.