|
|
|
|
|
by netfire
4004 days ago
|
|
Because the institution, historically speaking, has been between people of different genders. It is only recently that people have even considered allowing same-sex marriages. It certainly wasn't considered or was part of the intent of the 14th amendment, when it was added to the constitution. If you want to add a law to consider prohibiting same-sex marriage as discriminatory, then go through the process to add a law through the legislative process. Changing the meaning and intent of the current laws through the judicial process seems like the wrong way to go about it. It just isn't currently part of the constitution. |
|
It seems quite obvious to me: if a man is legally permitted to do X, and a woman is not, purely because she's a woman, then that's sex discrimination. It doesn't matter what X is or how much history there is around it.
If you want to argue that the 14th Amendment was not intended to prevent sex discrimination in marriage, I'm right there with you. But I don't see how you can argue that requiring marriage to be one man and one woman is not sex discrimination.