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by nkurz
6057 days ago
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They're known to be fairly accurate prior to 1960, to the best of our knowledge. This is a scientific thing This sounds backwards. We calibrate against the instrumental record up to 1960, we know that there is increasing divergence post 1960, thus should we presume we can have greater trust for the previous eras where we have no instrumental record? Wouldn't the onus be on explaining the divergence? I haven't seen anyone else accepting a divergence while at the same time claiming that the previous record is accurate. It seems more standard to downplay the divergence rather than to accept it. Could you reference some sources that discuss the divergence? |
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I must have misunderstood something there.