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by contravariant
4048 days ago
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Wouldn't RSA just fail if you used a non-prime factor? You shouldn't be able to decrypt any messages if you calculate the totient incorrectly, and for a public key pq, if either p or q isn't prime then (p-1)(q-1) won't be the totient. |
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Wikipedia says ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RSA_(cryptosystem) ): "When m is not relatively prime to n, the argument just given is invalid. This is highly improbable (only a proportion of 1/p + 1/q − 1/(pq) numbers have this property), but even in this case the desired congruence is still true. Either m ≡ 0 (mod p) or m ≡ 0 (mod q), and these cases can be treated using the previous proof.".
I'm not sure I follow 100% - perhaps someone smarter can explain.