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by tech_is_amoral 4063 days ago
Assuming there's no coercion occurring, I would say yes.
1 comments

How can you ever make that assumption? What would you define as coercion?
I think you're misunderstanding what I'm saying. I apologize for poor phrasing in the previous comment. Let me see if I can more clearly explain with an example.

Imagine the question is, "Is purchasing food with money perfectly fine?".

Most people would agree that trading money for food is fine so long as it's consensual and both parties agree (i.e. assuming there is no coercion).

If one party used violence, or threats of violence, to get the other party to make the trade, that would be coercion. Most people would agree that this type of "trade" is not okay.

Hopefully that helped. Cheers.