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by opinali 4131 days ago
What about knowingly putting consumers at risk? Suppose you buy a new car from GM and you later find out they've installed worn-out second hand brakes (on purpose, knowingly, and for profit motivation). But you're an old lady that only used the car to drive once a week, at 15mph to a church five blocks from home, so no damage happened. You're telling me that GM couldn't be punished for anything?
2 comments

Since you mention cars, there is a lot of regulations and laws regarding the production, selling and importing of cars. As such, producing unsafe car is likely a criminal offense, and it would likely be NHTSA who would go after GM.

But in this case, there is good precedence for claim of damages. People has used time it have taken a engineer to investigate, clean, and fix a computer system after a computer intrusion. Even a few hours work will result in several thousands, much more than the laptop itself is worth.

In the US, at least, you must have "standing" to sue someone. That means that you have to demonstrate damages.

Those damages may be minor -- you don't have to have killed anyone -- but they have to exist.

If, in your example, GM only installed the worn out brakes on that one car, and the worn-out brakes never caused any damages, then no, GM cannot be sued for it.

Note that "I had to pay a mechanic to replace the brakes" is damages.

I am not a lawyer, this is not legal advice, I may be wrong, etc.