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by asuidyasiud
4203 days ago
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If a group of people comes together, discusses, and comes by some process to a unanimous decision ("consensus") then it does usually make a lot of sense to regard the outcome as the "will of these people". The point I am trying to make through the last n posts is that Arrow's theorem does concerns the impossibility of a certain, narrow-minded formalization. It is therefore incorrect to conclude that 'the "will of the people" is a nonsensical concept by Arrow's Impossibility Theorem', which is what you had claimed. I have nothing to say about the people and churches of England. |
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You either have a coherent definition of "will of the people" that goes beyond consensus, or you don't. If you do, give the definition.