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by none_for_me_thx
4218 days ago
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Insider trading is not fraud. If someone is merely trading based on insider knowledge (that is, they aren't also being fraudulent about it), there is no deception. A person ought to be able to dispose of their property when and how they see fit. Moreover, we should actually want insider trading to happen more often, since prices transmit knowledge, and more knowledge earlier is a good thing for markets. This is why some people, myself included, believe insider trading is a victimless "crime" which should be decriminalized. |
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It is altogether sinful to have recourse to deceit in order to sell a thing for more than its just price, because this is to deceive one's neighbor so as to injure him.[1]
It seems to me, generally in the case of publicly traded securities, that you may assume that your counterparty in any trade has access to all the same information you do in making their decision to buy what you are selling or to sell what you are buying.
However, this assumption no longer holds if you knowingly make use of insider information in making a trade. In this case, it is more likely than not that the counterparty to your trade does not hold the same information that you do, and hence executing such a trade can rightly be called fraudulent.
An obvious exception would be that you can make the same trade, off-exchange, with someone you know personally and to whom you can privately relate the relevant insider information before making the trade. Is this the type of circumstance you meant when you said "merely trading based on insider knowledge... there is no deception"?
[0] http://www.newadvent.org/summa/3077.htm#article3
[1] http://www.newadvent.org/summa/3077.htm#article1