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by ptnapoleon
4249 days ago
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The author addresses this in the comments. He states that there are likely more divorces for one gender than the other in his data set. Which implies to me that individuals, rather than couples, are surveyed about their marriages/divorces. So if he surveyed 10 women and 10 men, those 10 women weren't married to those 10 men. If that isn't the case, then I'm also not sure how that could be the case given that he states all marriages examined were heterosexual in nature. |
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"We excluded respondents who had a non-US IP address, reported having a same-sex marriage, reported an age at marriage of less than 13 years old, or were above age 60."
The paper used mTurk to get ~3000 responses to their survey. So it's basically saying "the men who answered these questions ended up having this score, the women who answered these questions ended up having a slightly different score"
EDIT: Link to paper, http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=2501480