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by thaumasiotes
4264 days ago
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> it still has all the capability it had when they paid for it, and so it is just as "valuable" [to the original purchaser] If this is the case, how can it have depreciated down to $0? I feel like I missed a key concept somewhere. With all the functionality of a new lathe, it must be worth something over the value of its materials as scrap... right? |
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Thus, there are an abundance of used manual machine tools on the market, now they are irrelevant to the manufacturing industry. They remain difficult and expensive to move. They are very heavy take up lots of space, and may have special electrical power requirements. Their capability is also a function of tooling, which may, or may not be readily and cheaply available when obtaining the machine. So, despite the bargain that used manual machine tools represent, they are not likely impulse purchases.
If I had the space, I would love a Monarch 612. You can get them for scrap prices, but its just far too impractical to consider.