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by kazinator
4268 days ago
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Yes, of course. A placebo headache medicine of course does not have the direct effect comparable to aspirin, acetaminophen or ibuprofen. It's direct effect is not physical, because it doesn't have one. "No physical effect" means the same thing as "no effect", unless we are willing to discuss metaphysical effects. The indirect effects are somehow the result of the user's expectation that there is a direct effect. That is to say, "placebo effect" is not "the effect of the placebo object", obviously. It's the emergent effect of the whole situation of someone being duped with a placebo. Being duped with a placebo has direct, physical effects, while the placebo object has no effect. |
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See, that's the idea I'm not comfortable with. You are defining the term in a way which renders it basically meaningless, when there is an alternate definition that does have useful meaning.