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by anologwintermut 4398 days ago
No, no it doesn't. It's a perfectly valid answer (given appropriate evidence). The point is it's an answer to rebut data and it's one that it self requires data. In no way does it stand as an argument that we should not have the data in the first place.

Again, the presumption about a a post-racial society requires evidence. That evidence may be that ethnic identity issues explain discrepancies, but it can't be an argument because we live in a post racial society , data to the contrary should be ignored.