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by baddox
4432 days ago
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It's not intuitive to me how big of a difference 4.5 Hz is, but you really need to use a logarithmic scale (because, for instance, shifting everything up an octave will yield different errors in Hz). In cents, that's about a 16 cent difference, while an equal tempered semitone is 100 cents. Is 16 cents easily noticeable? I don't have a nice tuner handy, so I can't say. Still, your claim doesn't seem right to me. A perfect tuned guitar with perfect intonation in equal temperament will play the same frequencies as a perfectly tuned piano. Yet, when I play G and E chords on a piano, I don't notice the same tuning issues as I often do on guitar. That's why I assumed the bigger issue on guitars is intonation. |
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The thing is, tunesmith wasn't talking about a perfectly tuned equal temperament guitar. We're talking about tuning a guitar by ear so that one chord is sounds perfectly in tune (i.e., is in just temperament), then trying to play a different chord. It's going to sound off for the same reasons a just-tempered keyboard would. And as someone who constantly has to resist the urge to tune his B string too high in G major, I can tell you this isn't just a theoretical assertion.
That said, I have played on guitars (especially electric ones) that seem to resist sounding in tune even when the open strings are tuned "perfectly." Maybe that's a fret spacing defect in action. But it doesn't make the tuning-by-ear error negligible.