[paradoja]

In that there is no way to argue that the artist lost sales due to the copies, thus, no harm made.

[drcube]

"Lost sales" is not a necessary component of copyright infringement, if I recall.

[JohnTHaller]

It is a component when calculating any damages, though.

[drcube]

Is it? How do they figure? Or do they just use whatever number RIAA gives them?