Hacker News new | ask | show | jobs
by hga 4459 days ago
Yeah, the former has no Constitutional or prior to the 20th Century, US historical basis, the latter has both. And for the Constitutional basis, I'm not referring to the 2nd Amendment, but per Article 1, Section 8:

"The Congress shall have Power...

To provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions;

To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States, reserving to the States respectively, the Appointment of the Officers, and the Authority of training the Militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress;