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by gress 4469 days ago
You haven't addressed the issue. First of all, you need more than a correlation to call a problem 'neurobiological'. All behavioral patterns will have physiological correlates, but that doesn't mean these are the causes.

Secondly, even if you are convinced that these correlates are causal, if you do not actually test for them, then you have to show that the diagnosis method correlates strongly with the biology. I have bothered to look. I can't find such data. Are you saying you have?

The last part of what you are saying seems to be combination of an appeal to authority and affirming the consequent: "Because the scientific community currently recommends pharmaceutical treatment, the problem must have an organic cause."

Having worked closely with psychiatrists, I can assure you that recommending a pharmaceutical treatment is rarely done because they understand the mechanism of action. It is rarely even done because they think the cause is organic rather than environmental. It is done because it is the only effective option available to them.

Psychiatrists don't have the power to change schools or parenting, but they can prescribe drugs which may improve the outcome, and so have a duty to do so. This doesn't mean that the problem is a lack of medication, or even that the cause is biological. It's that doctors can't change the environment.

Consider PTSD - which can be treated using drugs and therapy, and clearly has neurobiological correlates. The cause is war and violence, not the lack of drugs.