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by gress 4465 days ago
It's meaningless because the 'market' of which share is measured is an arbitrary classification.
1 comments
ekianjo 4465 days ago
How so ? What market do you propose to measure then ?
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gress 4465 days ago
How so? Because these so called 'markets' of which share is measured are not markets at all. They are simply groups of products that analysts have decided to add together.
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