[voyou]

It's true that when Marx talks about abolishing private property, he has in mind means of production, but I think it's a mistake to try and explain that by making a distinction between "private" and "personal" property (a distinction which Marx himself didn't make, FWIW). The distinction ends up being a distraction, because its hard to make clearly (for reasons people in this thread have given), and, in any case, it's not really important to what Marx is saying; if you abolish ownership of the means of production (private property) there's no real point in ownership of consumption goods either (personal property). In a society in which I can only gain access to consumption goods by subordinating myself to the people who own the means of production, it matters that I have a firm hold on the consumption goods I need. But, if we were able to abolish private ownership of the means of production, I would be able to access consumption goods in some non-alienated way, so there would be no need to own them.

So I don't think it's quite right to say that "Marx and marxists do not believe that personal property should be abolished"; although the important thing is to abolish private property, the natural result of that would also be that personal property as we understand it would cease to exist.