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by spikels
4491 days ago
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Besides the obvious issue that correlation does not imply causation what does the statement "1 in 1,000 uninsured people die each year" even mean given that the overall annual mortality rate in the US is 799.5 per 100,000[1]. Is this in addition to the background rate? If true that would be quite astounding. Or is it just rounding? [1] http://www.cdc.gov/nchs/fastats/deaths.htm |
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