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by djs123sdj
4510 days ago
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Mobility is far too complex a phenomenon to sum up with a single nationwide "rate". Here's an example that reflects on the role of race in metropolitan areas and commute zones on mobility: http://economix.blogs.nytimes.com/2013/07/25/the-complex-sto... The authors of the study you cite actually provided some input for that article. Regarding education, the total "quantity" of education people are consuming seems like a meaningless metric. It says nothing about the distribution of high-quality educational opportunities to people on different ends of the income spectrum. The disparities in access to quality education in many cases are strongly correlated to the income distribution. Measuring health outcomes is similarly more complex than the broad brush of "total health consumed" that you paint it with:
http://www.nber.org/reporter/spring03/health.html
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1088996/ |
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https://www.google.com/publicdata/explore?ds=d5bncppjof8f9_&...
What data (if any) would be sufficient to convince you that inequality is not a problem?